Sunday, 20 November 2016

Historical Error: Mary, the mother of Jesus as Miriam, the sister of Moses

The Quran makes a clear historical error when it borrows stories from the Bible. The error we have in spotlight here is that the Quran mentions Mary, the mother of Jesus as the same Miriam (both names are written as Maryam in Arabic) who was supposedly the sister of Moses and Aaron according to the Bible. This is totally absurd since Moses (if at all he existed) lived more than 600-1000 years before Jesus.

The evidence for this is so strong that the Quran repeats this mistake in two different ways.

1) By addressing Maryam, the mother of Jesus as "Sister of Harun (Aaron)" (Quran 19:28)
2) By mistaking Imran (Amram), the father of Moses, Aaron and Miriam as the Grandfather of Jesus (Quran 3:35 - 3:45, 66:12)

Before I describe the evidence, let us consider the possibility that the verse 19:28 is not referring to a biological sister. Is it then a mere coincidence that Aaron actually had a sister with the same name Maryam as per the Torah? Even to the point that she is described in Torah as "Sister of Aaron", exactly as Jesus' mother is referred to in the Quran? Think over it. If the Quran is from God, then we have to accept that God was deliberately misleading humans into believing that Mary, the mother of Jesus was Aaron's sister. Or is God so careless that he didn't realize this and ended up using the word "sister"?

Let us forgive this and see if there is any other place in the Quran where this confusion between Mary and Miriam is repeated. Yes there is! The Quran verses 3:35 - 3:45 describe that the wife of Imran gave birth to Maryam, who later became the mother of Jesus. Verse 66:12 describes Maryam, the mother of Jesus as the daughter of Imran. There are absolutely no inscriptions or scriptures mentioning Imran as the father of Mary, till the author of Quran came up with this claim in the 7th century. Strange! So, from where did the author pull out the name "Imran" from? The answer is Torah. Exodus 6:20 and 15:20 describe that Amram was the father of Moses, Aaron and Miriam. Amram is arabicised to Imran. This idea that Imran had a daughter "Maryam" made the author of Quran think that this was talking about Maryam, the mother of Jesus.

Here is a verse from the Torah that state that Moses and Aaron had a sister named Miriam where she is described as "sister of Aaron", exactly as Jesus' mother is described in Quran: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus+15%3A20&version=KJV

Here is another verse from the Torah that state that Amram (Imran) was the father of Moses, Aaron and Miriam: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus+6:20&version=KJV

Here are the verses 19:27 - 19:34 from the Quran which show that the author of Quran mistook Mary, the mother of Jesus as the sister of Aaron: http://www.islam101.com/quran/QTP/QTP019.htm

19:27 - Then she brought him to her own folk, carrying him. They said: O Mary! You have come with an amazing thing.
19:28 - O sister of Aaron! Your father was not a wicked man nor was your mother a harlot.
19:29 - Then she pointed to him. They said: How can we talk to one who is in the cradle, a young boy ?
19:30 - He spoke: Lo! I am the slave of Allah. He has given me the Scripture and has appointed me a Prophet,
19:31 - And has made me blessed wheresoever I may be, and has enjoined upon me prayer and almsgiving so long as I remain alive,
19:32 - And (has made me) dutiful toward her who bore me, and has not made me arrogant, unblessed.
19:33 - Peace on me the day I was born, and the day I die, and the day I shall be raised alive!
19:34 - Such was Jesus, son of Mary: (this is) a statement of the truth concerning which they doubt.

Here are the verses 3:35 - 3:45 and 66:12 which show that the author of Quran further affirms his previous error by mistaking Amram, the father of Moses, Aaron and Miriam as the grandfather of Jesus: http://www.islam101.com/quran/QTP/QTP003.htm

3:35 - (Remember) when the wife of 'Imran said: My Lord! I have vowed unto you that which is in my belly as a consecrated (offering). Accept it from me. Lo!  you, only you, are the Hearer, the Knower!
3:36 - And when she was delivered she said: My Lord! Lo! I am delivered of a female - Allah knew best of what she was delivered - the male is not as the female; and lo! I have named her Mary, and lo! I crave your protection for her and for her offspring from Satan the outcast.
....
3:45 - (And remember) when the angels said: O Mary! Lo! Allah gives you glad tidings of a word from him, whose name is the Messiah, Jesus, son of Mary, illustrious in the world and the Hereafter, and one of those brought near (unto Allah).

http://www.islam101.com/quran/QTP/QTP066.htm
66:12 - And Mary, daughter of 'Imran, whose body was chaste, therefore We breathed therein something of Our Spirit. And she put faith in the words of her Lord and His scriptures, and was of the obedient.

A hadith from Sahih Muslim states that the Christians of Najran actually realized this error and questioned Mughira bin Shu'ba, one of Muhammad's men regarding this. The Christians asserted that Moses was born long before Jesus. Mughira was clueless how to respond to this and met Muhammad, who understood his mistake and tried to cover it up by saying that the verse 19:28 was referring to another Harun. This incident is depicted in Sahih Muslim:

Sahih Muslim 25:5326

https://sunnah.com/muslim/38/13
Mughira b. Shu'ba reported:
When I came to Najran, they (the Christians of Najran) asked me: You read" O sister of Harun" (i. e. Hadrat Maryam) in the Qur'an, whereas Moses was born much before Jesus. When I came back to Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) I asked him about that, whereupon he said: The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostles and pious persons who had gone before them.

Muhammad obviously did not want to change the Quran and attempts to cover it up - "The people of old age used to name people after the names of Apostles". And Muhammad wanted to tell people that it is a mere coincidence that there was actually an Aaron/Harun as per the Torah AND that same person had a sister with the same name Maryam. Not to mention depicting Mary's father as having the same name as Miriam's father. It is well understandable because he would not want to admit having made a mistake, at all cost!

Is it still possible that Mary's father was actually named Imran and/or that she had a brother named Harun? If you are thinking that way, you need to think why no other book ever mentioned this for more than 600 years since Mary's era until the Quran mentioned it? The obvious answer is that the author of Quran borrowed it from the Torah while making a fatal error. Infact, multiple Christian traditions including the Gospel of James from the second century state that Mary's father was named Joachim: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Joachim

Many Muslim apologists point out Bible verses depicting Jesus as "son of David", Quran verses depicting Abraham as "brother of Lut", Shuaib as the "brother of Midian" etc and state that it was common in semitic languages for such references to be made depicting a symbolic relationship. The problem however is that we have absolutely no examples in any semitic languages before 8th century of any person A being referred to as "brother/sister of person B" when B lived centuries before A. Whenever there are such references, A and B are contemporaries such as in the example of Abraham and Lut. And in case of Shuaib being referred to as "brother of Midian", Midian was his own tribe. And when Jesus is depicted as the son of David, there is no parallel Jesus character who was actually the son of David in the books that describe David's life. As such, the usage "son" is understood as "descendant". This brings us to another observation - the phrase "brother of" and "sister of" are not used to denote descendency. Rather, "son of" and "daughter of" are used when such references don't bring any confusion to parallel characters with the same name.

Additionally, the fact that the Quran verse 19:28 compares Mary to her father and mother right after making the usage "sister of Harun" increases the chances that the author was infact referring to her as the biological sister of Harun.

There is no way to reconcile this historical error. This only affirms that the author of Quran was actually borrowing second hand knowledge from scriptures such as the Torah and Gospels.

Monday, 17 October 2016

Sun Stopping its Movement During Night

Here is one of the clearest and most embarrassing scientific errors in the Quran. The Quran explicitly states that sun stops its motion during the night time. This is stated in verse 36:38. Let us see verses 36:37 - 36:39

http://www.islam101.com/quran/QTP/QTP036.htm (Translated by Pickthall)

036.037 A token unto them is night. We strip it of the day, and lo! they are in darkness.
036.038 And the sun runneth on unto a resting-place for him. That is the measuring of the Mighty, the Wise.
036.039 And for the moon We have appointed mansions (phases) till she return like an old shrivelled palm-leaf.


The sequence is very clear and simple.

1) Day changes to night. (36:37)
2) Sun runs to its resting place. (36:38)
3) Moon appears in the night sky. (36:39)

Arabic transliteration: http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=36&verse=38

36:38 - wa al-shamsu tajri li-mustaqarrin laha dhalika taqdiru al-azizi al-alimi

"li-mustaqarrin" means "to a resting place". Here is the meaning of "mustaqarr" referencing the famous Lane's Lexicon: https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/مستقر

Noun
مُسْتَقَرّ ‎(mustaqarrm
  1. fixed domicile, fixed residence, fixed lodging
  2. place of stability, of quiet, of rest, of permanence
Many Quran translators such as Yusuf Ali have hidden this embarrassing error by mistranslating "li-mustaqarrin" as "for a term appointed" or "for a period determined". I expect the readers to understand that a false translation is false, no matter who translates it. You do not need to take my words for granted. I will show you the word "mustaqarr" mentioned several places in the Quran almost always meaning "resting place", "dwelling place" or "settlement". See verses 2:36, 6:98, 11:6, 75:12 and you will see that mustaqarr is used with the above meaning, and not "term appointed".

If the author meant to say "for a term appointed", or "for a period determined", he could have simply used the proper Arabic for that - "li-ajalin musamman". Throughout the Quran, the same words "ajalin musamman" have been used to refer to "term appointed", as demonstrated in verses 13:2, 14:10, 16:61, 22:5, 22:33 and 46:3.

Another apologetic argument is that the Quran is talking about the end of the life of sun in 36:38. That argument does not really stand when the Quran is clearly talking about a resting/settling place for the sun. To interpret this as the end of sun's life is actually twisting what is stated in the verse. It is also odd to think that the author of the Quran would be placing a verse about the end-times exactly in between two verses that describe what appears to be the daily observable phenomena in the sky.

If you are still not convinced, let us refer Sahih Muslim, one of the most trusted hadith-collections ever.

Sahih Muslim 1:297

http://sunnah.com/muslim/1/306
It is narrated on the authority of Abu Dharr that the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) one day said:
Do you know where the sun goes? They replied: Allah and His Apostle know best. He (the Holy Prophet) observed: Verily it (the sun) glides till it reaches its resting place under the Throne. Then it falls prostrate and remains there until it is asked: Rise up and go to the place whence you came, and it goes back and continues emerging out from its rising place and then glides till it reaches its place of rest under the Throne and falls prostrate and remains in that state until it is asked: Rise up and return to the place whence you came, and it returns and emerges out from it rising place and the it glides (in such a normal way) that the people do not discern anything ( unusual in it) till it reaches its resting place under the Throne. Then it would be said to it: Rise up and emerge out from the place of your setting, and it will rise from the place of its setting. The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said. Do you know when it would happen? It would happen at the time when faith will not benefit one who has not previously believed or has derived no good from the faith.
 
Notice Muhammad asking his followers "Do you know where the sun goes?". The question is about the daily routine of the sun. They reply that Muhammad and Allah knows best. To this, Muhammad informs them without any doubt that sun keeps moving till it reaches its resting place. He even explicitly mentions that this is the regular phenomena by affirming that this happens repeatedly. Please note that only the last part (which says that one day, the sun will rise from the west) is about judgement day. The first part describes the regular daily phenomena.
 
Conclusion: The Quran has an embarrassing scientific error in stating that sun stops moving after setting. The authentic hadiths confirm this with even more clarity. This is what one would expect from a seventh century Arab who simply had no idea what the sun does after it sets.

Tuesday, 11 October 2016

Earth Created Before the Stars

The Quran clearly states that the Earth was created before the Stars - A grave scientific error. This is clear from the Verses 41:9 - 41:12. Here I will quote two different translations of the Quran to show it - Translations of Pickthall and Yusuf Ali. Pickthall makes it absolutely certain, so let us give the Quran a chance and go straight to Yusuf Ali's translation.

http://www.islam101.com/quran/yusufAli/QURAN/41.htm

41:9. Say: Is it that ye deny Him Who created the earth in two Days? And do ye join equals with Him? He is the Lord of (all) the Worlds.
41:10. He set on the (earth), mountains standing firm, high above it, and bestowed blessings on the earth, and measure therein all things to give them nourishment in due proportion, in four Days, in accordance with (the needs of) those who seek (Sustenance).
41:11. Moreover He comprehended in His design the sky, and it had been (as) smoke: He said to it and to the earth: "Come ye together, willingly or unwillingly." They said: "We do come (together), in willing obedience."
41:12. So He completed them as seven firmaments in two Days, and He assigned to each heaven its duty and command. And We adorned the lower heaven with lights, and (provided it) with guard. Such is the Decree of (Him) the Exalted in Might, Full of Knowledge.

The start of verse 41:12 uses the Arabic word "fa" which indicates a sequence of events between 41:11 and 41:12. See the word by word grammar of the Quran: http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=41&verse=12

Yusuf Ali translates "fa" as "so" and Pickthall translates it as "then". In either case, the events in 41:11 occurred before the events in 41:12. Notice that at the end of verse 41:11, the earth was surely existant, no doubt. And when does the Quran claim that stars were created? In 41:12, that is after the creation of the Earth! Yusuf Ali describes stars as "lights" and Pickthall describes it as "lamps". Either way, the verse is talking about stars (whether it includes sun or not). There are no other "lights" or "lamps" (notice the plural) that fit the context.

Things are even clearer when we go to Pickthall's translation:

http://www.islam101.com/quran/QTP/QTP041.htm

041.009 Say (O Muhammad, unto the idolaters): Disbelieve ye verily in Him Who created the earth in two Days, and ascribe ye unto Him rivals ? He (and none else) is the Lord of the Worlds.
041.010 He placed therein firm hills rising above it, and blessed it and measured therein its sustenance in four Days, alike for (all) who ask;
041.011 Then turned He to the heaven when it was smoke, and said unto it and unto the earth: Come both of you, willingly or loth. They said: We come, obedient.
041.012 Then He ordained them seven heavens in two Days and inspired in each heaven its mandate; and We decked the nether heaven with lamps, and rendered it inviolable. That is the measuring of the Mighty, the Knower.

The best argument someone can put up against this is that the verse 41:12 does not explicitly say that stars were "created". Rather it says that the "nearest heaven" was "beautified" or "adorned" with stars. But think about this: If the author of the Quran knew that stars were already shining there long before the earth was created, then why would he say that god beautified the nearest heaven with stars after the earth was created? If the stars were already there, this beautification was already there. It makes no sense to say this beautification was made after the creation of earth.

Modern science has made considerable progress in the study of the formation of planets through astronomical observations. Planets in general form as a result of the coming together and solidification of matter thrown outwards from their parent stars. This explains why they orbit stars. Thus, there is simply no way that earth was created before stars. Studies estimate the age of the earth as approximately one-third the age of universe from the time of the big bang. Stars were there long before the formation of the earth.

To conclude, this is a grave scientific error in the Quran that simply cannot be reconciled with scientific observations.

Wednesday, 31 August 2016

Mass Deportation of Non-Muslims from the Arabian Peninsula

Towards the later years of his life, Muhammad declared that he would expel all Jews and Christians from the Arabian Peninsula and leave only Muslims there. He had already started this mass deportation programme by expelling all Jews from Medina - including the tribes of Banu Mustaliq, Banu Qanuqa and Banu Nadir. He also mass-murdered the entire male population of Banu Quraiza (except boys who did not start growing pubic hair yet) for breaking a treaty to help him in war. Even two or three people trying to assassinate him was enough reason for him to expel an entire tribe, as was the case with Banu Nadir (read Muhammad's earliest biographies - Ibn Ishaq and Al-Tabari).

What is even more remarkable is that the Christians in the Arabian Peninsula caused no trouble for Muhammad and the Muslims. Yet he wanted to mass-deport them, something that his companion Umar fulfilled later.

Let us look at the authentic hadiths that show this:

1) Sahih Muslim 19:4366

http://sunnah.com/muslim/32/75
It has been narrated by 'Umar b. al-Khattib that he heard the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) say:
I will expel the Jews and Christians from the Arabian Peninsula and will not leave any but Muslim.

2) Jami at Tirmidhi 3:19:1607

http://sunnah.com/tirmidhi/21/70
Narrated Jabir bin ‘Abdullah : "Umar bin Al-Khattab informed me that he heard the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) say: 'I will expel the Jews and the Christians from the Arabian Peninsula, and I will not leave anyone in it except a Muslim."

3) Sahih Muslim 19:4364

http://sunnah.com/muslim/32/73
It has been narrated on the authority of Ibn Umar that the Jews of Banu Nadir and Banu Quraiza fought against the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) who expelled Banu Nadir, and allowed Quraiza to stay on, and granted favour to them until they too fought against him. Then he killed their men, and distributed their women, children and properties among the Muslims, except that some of them had joined the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) who granted them security. They embraced Islam. The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) turned out all the Jews of Medina. Banu Qainuqa' (the tribe of 'Abdullah b. Salim) and the Jews of Banu Haritha and every other Jew who was in Medina.

4) Sahih Muslim 19:4363

http://sunnah.com/muslim/32/72
It has been narrated on the authority of Abu Huraira who said:

We were (sitting) in the mosque when the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) came to us and said: (Let us) go to the Jews. We went out with him until we came to them. The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) stood up and called out to them (saying): O ye assembly of Jews, accept Islam (and) you will be safe. They said: Abu'l-Qasim, you have communicated (God's Message to us). The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said: I want this (i. e. you should admit that God's Message has been communicated to you), accept Islam and you would be safe. They said: Abu'l-Qasim, you have communicated (Allah's Message). The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said: I want this... - He said to them (the same words) the third time (and on getting the same reply) he added: You should know that the earth belongs to Allah and His Apostle, and I wish that I should expel you from this land. Those of you who have any property with them should sell it, otherwise they should know that the earth belongs to Allah and His Apostle (and they may have to go away leaving everything behind).

Hadith #4 shows Muhammad repeatedly asking Jews to embrace Islam and when they rejected, he proceeded on to expel them. Hadith #3 shows that he expelled every single Jew from Medina. This proves that the real reason for expulsion was their religion.

Muhammad forced the Jews to pay him a tax of half of their total produce if they wanted to stay in Khaibar until his close companion Umar expelled them. Umar completed the expulsion of Christians from Hijaz (Mecca plus Medina) and Jews from the Arabian Peninsula (Mecca, Medina, Yemen, Al-Yamama and Al-Arj combined) as we can see below:

5) Sahih al Bukhari 3:39:531

http://sunnah.com/bukhari/41/19
Narrated Ibn `Umar:
`Umar expelled the Jews and the Christians from Hijaz. When Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) had conquered Khaibar, he wanted to expel the Jews from it as its land became the property of Allah, His Apostle, and the Muslims. Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) intended to expel the Jews but they requested him to let them stay there on the condition that they would do the labor and get half of the fruits. Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) told them, "We will let you stay on thus condition, as long as we wish." So, they (i.e. Jews) kept on living there until `Umar forced them to go towards Taima' and Ariha'.

6) Sahih al Bukhari 4:52:288

http://sunnah.com/bukhari/56/259
Narrated Sa`id bin Jubair:
Ibn `Abbas said, "Thursday! What (great thing) took place on Thursday!" Then he started weeping till his tears wetted the gravels of the ground . Then he said, "On Thursday the illness of Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) was aggravated and he said, "Fetch me writing materials so that I may have something written to you after which you will never go astray." The people (present there) differed in this matter and people should not differ before a prophet. They said, "Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) is seriously sick.' The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "Let me alone, as the state in which I am now, is better than what you are calling me for." The Prophet (ﷺ) on his death-bed, gave three orders saying, "Expel the pagans from the Arabian Peninsula, respect and give gifts to the foreign delegates as you have seen me dealing with them." I forgot the third (order)" (Ya'qub bin Muhammad said, "I asked Al-Mughira bin `Abdur-Rahman about the Arabian Peninsula and he said, 'It comprises Mecca, Medina, Al-Yama-ma and Yemen." Ya'qub added, "And Al-Arj, the beginning of Tihama.")

I would like to remind the Muslims that they would feel really horrible if someone expelled them from their homes as retaliation to crimes committed by a group of Muslims. A little empathy would be enough to understand how the Christians and those Jews who did not do any aggression against Muslims felt when they were deported from their homes by Muhammad and his men. You can find occasions where Muhammad was tolerant to non Muslims, but that will not negate these cruelties that he committed. It is thus clear that Muhammad became extremely intolerant towards non-Muslims towards his later years and is a very bad example for humanity.

Saturday, 16 July 2016

Chapter 9 of the Quran - The Final Violent Orders of Islam

What is important about Chapter 9 of the Quran is that it is the last major chapter (in the actual order of how events took place). These verses are the final orders given to Muslims by whom they believe to be God. These commands have higher precedence than the earlier commands, some of which even preached tolerance and peace. I am not asking Muslims to obey these violent commands, but rather I am requesting them to examine the information that I am about to give. Obviously, they do not need to obey a war manual that is filled with scientific errors and moral problems.

All of us who read this chapter knows that there are very violent verses in it. But what Muslims do to make their religion look peaceful, is that they claim these verses were orders given on how to behave in the battlefield. Hell, no. Many of those violent verses had nothing to do with battlefield, such as 9:5, 9:73. Then there is a common myth that verse 9:29 (about fighting disbelievers till they pay an oppression tax (Jizya) or convert to Islam) was meant for the battle of Tabouk. Not at all! Verse 9:29 commands Muslims to keep fighting disbelievers aggressively till they pay the tax or embrace Islam. Battle of Tabouk was a result of this violent command. And so were the endless conquests made by the caliphs Abu Bakr, Umar, Uthman, Ali and so on. It is foolish to think that these were all "defensive wars". So defensive that they even conquered Persia, North Africa and Spain within one hundred years of Muhammad’s death.

I) Verse 9:5


Prelude - Muslims under Muhammad captured Mecca in 629 AD December. Then they killed a few people including a girl for singing satirical songs about Muhammad. Many converted to Islam, mainly due to fear. Then Muhammad went to to fight more battles - Hunayn, Taif, Tabouk and came back to Medina at the start of the sacred months - during which fighting was seen as forbidden. This was around October 631 AD. Thus, for a bit less than two years, there were no fights between the pagans of Mecca and Muhammad. However, Muhammad remarked the pagans as "unclean" and didnot like them performing the pilgrimage around Ka'Aba naked (Refer Tafsir Ibn Kathir: http://www.islamwb.com/tafsir-ibn-kathir-pdf). So here we go.

Quran 9:1 - 9:6 (http://www.islam101.com/quran/QTP/QTP009.htm - Pickthall's Translation)

[1. Freedom from obligation (is proclaimed) from Allah and His messenger toward those of the idolaters with whom ye made a treaty.

2. Travel freely in the land four months, and know that ye cannot escape Allah and that Allah will confound the disbelievers (in His Guidance).

3. And a proclamation from Allah and His messenger to all men on the day of the Greater Pilgrimage that Allah is free from obligation to the idolaters, and (so is) His messenger. So, if ye repent, it will be better for you; but if ye are averse, then know that ye cannot escape Allah. Give tidings (O Muhammad) of a painful doom to those who disbelieve,

4. Excepting those of the idolaters with whom ye (Muslims) have a treaty, and who have since abated nothing of your right nor have supported anyone against you. (As for these), fulfil their treaty to them till their term. Lo! Allah loveth those who keep their duty (unto Him).

5. Then, when the sacred months have passed, slay the idolaters wherever ye find them, and take them (captive), and besiege them, and prepare for them each ambush. But if they repent and establish worship and pay the poor-due, then leave their way free. Lo! Allah is Forgiving, Merciful.

6. And if anyone of the idolaters seeketh thy protection (O Muhammad), then protect him so that he may hear the Word of Allah, and afterward convey him to his place of safety. That is because they are a folk who know not.]

Here, Muhammad announces the cancellation of all treaties that Muslims have made with the pagans of Mecca (9:1) except those who never violated any treaty, with whom the treaties would be fulfilled till the end of their term (9:4). He gives the pagans, a deadline of four months, after which he orders the Muslims to kill or take captive (9:5) the ones who did not leave the land (ie, Hijaz - a large area surrounding and including Mecca and Medina, seen as the Holy Land by the Muslims). If any pagan comes to Muslims seeking protection from this genocide that had been ordered, then Muhammad asks them to show them the word of Allah (Quran) and then escort them to a safe place, outside the Hijaz (9:6). This is understood since expulsion had been ordered from the Hijaz.

Let us look at what the authentic commentaries (Tafsirs) have to tell about these verses. Quoting Tafsir Ibn Kathir which is widely regarded as the most authentic commentary of the Quran and is based on information from early Islamic sources: http://www.qtafsir.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=2581&Itemid=64

9:5 - (So when the Sacred Months have passed...), meaning, `Upon the end of the four months during which We prohibited you from fighting the idolators, and which is the grace period We gave them, then fight and kill the idolators wherever you may find them.' Allah's statement next, (then fight the Mushrikin wherever you find them), means, on the earth in general, except for the Sacred Area, for Allah said, (And fight not with them at Al-Masjid Al-Haram, unless they fight you there. But if they attack you, then fight them. )﴿2:191﴾ Allah said here, (and capture them), executing some and keeping some as prisoners, (and besiege them, and lie in wait for them in each and every ambush), do not wait until you find them. Rather, seek and besiege them in their areas and forts, gather intelligence about them in the various roads and fairways so that what is made wide looks ever smaller to them. This way, they will have no choice, but to die or embrace Islam.

Some apologists claim that the verse 9:6 allows the peaceful pagans to remain in the land. Nope. It asks the Muslims to give the Quran to the pagans who come to them, seeking protection. If they do not embrace Islam, they would be escorted to a safe place, outside the Hijaz. The pagans who had not violated any treaty would be allowed in the Hijaz, only till the end of the treaty. No new treaties would be made with the pagans (9:1).

This is partly why Muslims still do not allow a single non-Muslim inside the Hijaz.

II) Verse 9:29

[Fight against such of those who have been given the Scripture and believe not in Allah nor the Last Day, and forbid not that which Allah hath forbidden by His messenger, and follow not the Religion of Truth, until they pay the tribute readily, being brought low.]

Clearly, this verse asks the Muslims to fight those who were given the word of Allah and do not believe in Islam, until they pay the Jizya (oppression tax on non muslims). So, this definitely was not a fight for survival, but rather a fight to expand Islamic rule. The verse doesn't say "fight those who attack you"... rather it says to fight non Muslims till they pay a special tax. Apologists claim that this verse was specifically meant for Battle of Tabouk. Wrong.. Let us read Tafsir Ibn Kathir: http://www.qtafsir.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=2567&Itemid=64

(Fight against those who believe not in Allah, nor in the Last Day, nor forbid that which has been forbidden by Allah and His Messenger, and those who acknowledge not the religion of truth among the People of the Scripture, until they pay the Jizyah with willing submission, and feel themselves subdued.) Therefore, when People of the Scriptures disbelieved in Muhammad , they had no beneficial faith in any Messenger or what the Messengers brought. Rather, they followed their religions because this conformed with their ideas, lusts and the ways of their forefathers, not because they are Allah's Law and religion. Had they been true believers in their religions, that faith would have directed them to believe in Muhammad , because all Prophets gave the good news of Muhammad's advent and commanded them to obey and follow him. Yet when he was sent, they disbelieved in him, even though he is the mightiest of all Messengers. Therefore, they do not follow the religion of earlier Prophets because these religions came from Allah, but because these suit their desires and lusts. Therefore, their claimed faith in an earlier Prophet will not benefit them because they disbelieved in the master, the mightiest, the last and most perfect of all Prophets . Hence Allah's statement, (Fight against those who believe not in Allah, nor in the Last Day, nor forbid that which has been forbidden by Allah and His Messenger, and those who acknowledge not the religion of truth among the People of the Scripture,) This honorable Ayah was revealed with the order to fight the People of the Book, after the pagans were defeated, the people entered Allah's religion in large numbers, and the Arabian Peninsula was secured under the Muslims' control. Allah commanded his messenger to fight the people of the scriptures - Jews and Christians, on the ninth year of Hijrah, and he prepared his army to fight the Romans and called the people to Jihad announcing his intent and destination. The Messenger sent his intent to various Arab areas around Al-Madinah to gather forces, and he collected an army of thirty thousand. Some people from Al-Madinah and some hypocrites, in and around it, lagged behind, for that year was a year of drought and intense heat. The Messenger of Allah marched, heading towards Ash-Sham to fight the Romans until he reached Tabuk, where he set camp for about twenty days next to its water resources. He then prayed to Allah for a decision and went back to Al-Madinah because it was a hard year and the people were weak, as we will mention, Allah willing.

Thus, it is very clear that this was not a command of self-defense, rather a command to keep expanding the Islamic rule.

III) Verse 9:73

[O Prophet! Strive against the disbelievers and the hypocrites! Be harsh with them. Their ultimate abode is hell, a hapless journey's end.]

This verse is self-explanatory. The Muslims are commanded to be harsh against both disbelievers and hypocrites (namesake Muslims). People who do not join the fight for expanding Islamic rule, and stay at home are seen as hypocrites. Ever wondered why the ISIS are harsh against Muslims who do not join their attempts to expand their rule? This verse is part of the reason.

Let us read Tasir Ibn Kathir to clear any doubts: http://www.qtafsir.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=1748&Itemid=64

Allah commanded His Messenger to strive hard against the disbelievers and the hypocrites and to be harsh against them. Allah also commanded him to be merciful with the believers who followed him, informing him that the destination of the disbelievers and hypocrites is the Fire in the Hereafter. Ibn Mas`ud commented on Allah's statement, (Strive hard against the disbelievers and the hypocrites) "With the hand, or at least have a stern face with them.'' Ibn `Abbas said, "Allah commanded the Prophet to fight the disbelievers with the sword, to strive against the hypocrites with the tongue and annulled lenient treatment of them.'' Ad-Dahhak commented, "Perform Jihad against the disbelievers with the sword and be harsh with the hypocrites with words, and this is the Jihad performed against them.'' Similar was said by Muqatil and Ar-Rabi`. Al-Hasan and Qatadah said, "Striving against them includes establishing the (Islamic Penal) Law of equality against them.'' In combining these statements, we could say that Allah causes punishment of the disbelievers and hypocrites with all of these methods in various conditions and situations, and Allah knows best.

Thus, it is very clear that this is not at all for self-defense and rather for aggression against disbelievers with the sword and to be rude to the namesake Muslims who do not join the war or follow Islamic rules properly.

To Be Continued...

Monday, 4 July 2016

Prohibiting Muslim Women from marrying Non-Muslims

We know that the Islamic world is known for prohibiting Muslim women from marrying non Muslims. Although we have the same problem in other religious communities to an extent, the problem is far greater in the Muslim world. In cases where Muslim women get married to non Muslims, they are often met with death threats, physical abuse and social outcry. Countries like Saudi, Afghanistan, Sudan and Iran have laws that declare such a woman as an apostate and sentence them to death penalty. Various other Muslim nations have laws that nullify their marriages, custody of children etc..The situation is better for Muslims living in the west and in some Muslim minority areas of India, but that does not change the situation in the rest of the Muslim world.

Let us see what the books of Islam have to state regarding this:

Quran 60:10 - O ye who believe! When believing women come unto you as fugitives, examine them. Allah is Best Aware of their faith. Then, if ye know them for true believers, send them not back unto the disbelievers. They are not lawful for them (the disbelievers), nor are they (the disbelievers) lawful for them. And give them (the disbelievers) that which they have spent (upon them). And it is no sin for you to marry such women when ye have given them their dues. And hold not to the ties of disbelieving women; and ask for (the return of) that which ye have spent; and let them (the disbelievers) ask for that which they have spent. That is the judgment of Allah. He judgeth between you. Allah is Knower, Wise.

This is a Medinan verse where the context is the case of women wanting to be Muslims, coming to join the Muslim community. In one look, it may seem that the Quran is merely asking you to not send them back to the disbelievers against their own will. But the same verse also clearly states that they are not lawful for disbelievers to marry, which is a big problem. Let us keep reading...

Quran 2:221 - Wed not idolatresses till they believe; for lo! a believing bondwoman is better than an idolatress though she please you; and give not your daughters in marriage to idolaters till they believe, for lo! a believing slave is better than an idolater though he please you. These invite unto the Fire, and Allah inviteth unto the Garden, and unto forgiveness by His grace, and expoundeth His revelations to mankind that haply they may remember.

This is a Medinan verse and clearly states that Muslim men shall not marry idolaters (polytheists). It also very clearly states that a Muslim should not give his daughter in marriage to polytheists. The word "daughter" is not mentioned but it is rather understood from the statement "do not give in marriage to polytheists".

There is a verse which gives an exception for Muslim men to marry Jew and Christian women (commonly referred to as "people of the scripture"), but there is no exception given to Muslim women. Read the verse below:

Quran 5:5 - This day are (all) good things made lawful for you. The food of those who have received the Scripture is lawful for you, and your food is lawful for them. And so are the virtuous women of the believers and the virtuous women of those who received the Scripture before you (lawful for you) when ye give them their marriage portions and live with them in honour, not in fornication, nor taking them as secret concubines. Whoso denieth the faith, his work is vain and he will be among the losers in the Hereafter.

To put it shortly, a book which is seen as the final, unchanging word of god declares it unlawful for Muslim women to marry non-Muslims. This is exactly the kind of social evil that we should discourage. A healthy society should not impose restrictions on the life choices of people and should rather let them live happily with the partners they choose by mutual consent.

Sunday, 26 June 2016

Quran - Sun Revolving Around the Earth

Here is clear proof that the author of the Quran believed that the Sun revolved around the Earth. Okay, it is not explicitly written “sun revolves around the earth”. But it is very clear from the context. Listen to these Quranic verses translated by Pickthall (you can refer any other translation) which speak about the movement of the sun and the moon: http://www.islam101.com/quran/QTP/index.htm

36:37 - A token unto them is night. We strip it of the day, and lo! they are in darkness.
36:38 - And the sun runneth on unto a resting-place for him. That is the measuring of the Mighty, the Wise.
36:39 - And for the moon We have appointed mansions till she return like an old shrivelled palm-leaf.
36:40 - It is not for the sun to overtake the moon, nor doth the night outstrip the day. They float each in an orbit.

39:5 - He hath created the heavens and the earth with truth. He maketh night to succeed day, and He maketh day to succeed night, and He constraineth the sun and the moon to give service, each running on for an appointed term. Is not He the Mighty, the Forgiver?

21:33 - And He it is Who created the night and the day, and the sun and the moon. They float, each in an orbit.

See verse 39:5 which talks about the movement of sun and moon in the context of day and night. See verses 21:33 and 36:40 which state “sun and the moon in an orbit are swimming (or floating)”, where the orbits are again talked about in the context of day and night. In verse 36:40, it is mentioned that it is not permissible for sun to overtake the moon. There is an Arabic word "yanbaghi" meaning "is permitted" used in the verse which Pickthall has omitted because the meaning is easily understood even otherwise (http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=36&verse=39). 

When does the question of sun overtaking the moon arise? When the sun and the moon are in parallel orbits around the earth! You can argue that the Quran is talking about the apparent revolution of the sun around the earth and not the actual revolution. But then the verse 36:38 talks about a resting place for the sun which is not only a scientific error (Main Article - Sun Stopping Movement During Night), but also further proves that the author believed that Sun actually revolves around the Earth. Some Muslims such as Zakir Naik claim that the verse is talking about the end of the life of sun. However, if we look at the previous verse, it is clear that 36:38 is talking about what happens after night falls. This is synonymous with the lack of knowledge of ancient people on what happens to the sun after it sets. Hadiths show us that Muhammad believed that sun takes rest and prostrates after setting.

[Sahih Muslim 1:297

http://sunnah.com/muslim/1/306
It is narrated on the authority of Abu Dharr that the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) one day said:
Do you know where the sun goes? They replied: Allah and His Apostle know best. He (the Holy Prophet) observed: Verily it (the sun) glides till it reaches its resting place under the Throne. Then it falls prostrate and remains there until it is asked: Rise up and go to the place whence you came, and it goes back and continues emerging out from its rising place and then glides till it reaches its place of rest under the Throne and falls prostrate and remains in that state until it is asked: Rise up and return to the place whence you came, and it returns and emerges out from it rising place and the it glides (in such a normal way) that the people do not discern anything ( unusual in it) till it reaches its resting place under the Throne. Then it would be said to it: Rise up and emerge out from the place of your setting, and it will rise from the place of its setting. The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said. Do you know when it would happen? It would happen at the time when faith will not benefit one who has not previously believed or has derived no good from the faith.]

A claim made by people such as Zakir Naik is that the movement of the sun and the moon mentioned here is the combined rotation and revolution of the sun around the milky way and of the moon around the earth. If that is so, then why is the movement always mentioned in the context of day and night? Is it one time? No. Atleast three times. All three times the movements are talked about, the phenomena of day and night is mentioned alongside. You wont see a single place in the Quran which talks about the movement of sun and moon without mentioning day and night alongside. The word "swimming" does not indicate rotation either (noone spins on his own axis while swimming). Also if the author of Quran knew that sun revolves around the milky way and moon revolves around the earth, why would he say "It is not permissible for the sun to overtake the moon"? This statement makes no sense at all if sun and moon orbitted different bodies! Also keep in mind that the rotation of the earth (actual cause of day and night) is not mentioned even once in the Quran.

Further, the Quran mentions the Earth as fixed and immobile.

Quran 27:61 - Is not He (best) Who made the earth a fixed abode, and placed rivers in the folds thereof, and placed firm hills therein, and hath set a barrier between the two seas? Is there any Allah beside Allah? Nay, but most of them know not!

There is a silly apologetic claim that the Quranic verse 27:88 (which tells that mountains will pass like the clouds) shows the rotation of the Earth. This is a silly claim because the passing of clouds happen relative to the earth, whereas mountains do not move with respect to the earth. If we look at the context by looking verses 27:87 - 27:89, we see that this event of mountains passing like clouds is said to happen on the judgement day, ie, it is an event predicted to happen in the future.

27:87 - And (remind them of) the Day when the Trumpet will be blown, and all who are in the heavens and the earth will start in fear, save him whom Allah willeth. And all come unto Him, humbled.
27:88 - And thou seest the hills thou deemest solid flying with the flight of clouds: the doing of Allah Who perfecteth all things. Lo! He is Informed of what ye do.
27:89 - Whoso bringeth a good deed will have better than its worth; and such are safe from fear that Day.


What do you infer from all these? The author of the Quran thought that the sun revolves around the earth!

MYTH: Muhammad Being Prophesized in Songs of Solomon

Here I will expose a Clear Lie of Zakir Naik. He claims that Songs of Solomon 5:16 of the Bible has a word "Muhammadim" in it, which is a prophesy of Muhammad.

Analysis: Let us read verses 5:8 to 5:16 of Songs of Solomon:
http://biblehub.com/songs/5-8.htm
....
http://biblehub.com/songs/5-16.htm

"Daughters of Jerusalem, I charge you-- if you find my beloved, what will you tell him? Tell him I am faint with love."
"How is your beloved better than others, most beautiful of women? How is your beloved better than others, that you so charge us?"
"My beloved is radiant and ruddy, outstanding among ten thousand."
"His head is purest gold; his hair is wavy and black as a raven."
"His eyes are like doves by the water streams, washed in milk, mounted like jewels."
"His cheeks are like beds of spice yielding perfume. His lips are like lilies dripping with myrrh."
"His arms are rods of gold set with topaz. His body is like polished ivory decorated with lapis lazuli."
"His legs are pillars of marble set on bases of pure gold. His appearance is like Lebanon, choice as its cedars."
"His mouth is sweetness itself; he is altogether lovely (Machamaddim - מַחֲמַדִּ֑ים ). This is my beloved, this is my friend, daughters of Jerusalem."

My friends, it is very clear that these verses tell about a girl based in Jerusalem, describing her lover/husband.. The Hebrew word used is pronounced as  Machamaddim and written as מַחֲמַדִּ֑ים (See what i gave in brackets). Its meaning is "highly desirable" or "altogether lovely". This is not at all related to Muhammad...

So then why the confusion? The confusion is mainly because there are no vowels in Hebrew. Hence, the name "Muhammad" and the Hebrew word "Machamad" would be written in the same manner. Let us consider for the sake of discussion that the word was actually the name "Muhammad" with an "im" added for respect (as claimed by Zakir). The problem is that this verse or passage is not a prophesy at all! There is no future tense used... The poem is clearly set in the time of Solomon who is supposed to have lived in the 10th century BC. How is a girl who lived centuries before Muhammad was even born, calling him "My Beloved"? It makes no sense at all!

Then Zakir claims that the extension "im" is used in the Bible only after names (eg: Elohim) to show respect. However, that does not mean "im" cannot be used elsewhere. It is also used to stress something. For example - the word Machamad (מַחֲמַדִּ֑) means "desirable" and Machamaddim (מַחֲמַדִּ֑ים) means "highly desirable". Here is that word in an actual Hebrew sentence: http://www.morfix.co.il/מַחֲמַדִּ֑ים

And here is what it means in the context of Songs of Solomon: http://biblehub.com/hebrew/machamaddim_4261.htm

Conclusion: The verse 5:16 of Songs of Solomon is not a prophesy at all. It shows a girl based in Jerusalem describing her lover/husband as "Machamaddim" meaning "highly desirable".
 

MYTH: Quran Describing Moonlight as Reflected

According to Zakir Naik, the Quran describes moonlight as reflected light. He claims that the Arabic word "nur" used to describe moonlight in quran means "reflected light". Here is a part of his debate with William Campbell where he makes the claim: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=q3P_WDTeInA

Zakir quotes the verse 25:61 of the Quran: http://corpus.quran.com/translation.jsp?chapter=25&verse=61

Yusuf Ali: "Blessed is He Who made constellations in the skies, and placed therein a Lamp and a Moon giving light"

Pickthall: "Blessed be He Who hath placed in the heaven mansions of the stars, and hath placed therein a great lamp and a moon giving light!"

The Quran uses the word "siraj" for describing sunlight and "munir" for describing moonlight. According to Zakir, siraj means "its own light" and munir is derived from the Arabic word "nur" which means "reflected light". If that was true, then the Quran describes moonlight as reflected light.

But wait... Zakir Naik lied when he said nur/munir means reflected light. Nur actually means "light", NOT reflected light. Munir actually means luminous/shining/giving light, not reflecting light. It is easy for him to fool an audience who do not know Arabic. But we do have dictionaries available to expose the truth!

Here is the proof from six different Arabic dictionaries and the word by word grammar of the quran:

1) Munir - Adjective ( منير )
http://www.arabdict.com/en/english-arabic/منير
http://mobile-dictionary.reverso.net/arabic-english/منير
http://dictionary.sensagent.com/منير/ar-en/
http://www.wordreference.com/aren/منير
https://glosbe.com/ar/en/منير
http://en.bab.la/dictionary/arabic-english/منير

http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=25&verse=61#(25:61:5)

2) Nur - Noun ( نور )
http://www.arabdict.com/en/english-arabic/نور
http://mobile-dictionary.reverso.net/arabic-english/نور
http://dictionary.sensagent.com/نور/ar-en/
http://www.wordreference.com/aren/نور
https://glosbe.com/ar/en/نور
http://en.bab.la/dictionary/arabic-english/نور

http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=24&verse=35#(24:35:35)

As you can see, none of these six Arabic-to-English dictionaries give the meaning reflected light for munir/nur. Similar wording is used for describing the moonlight in verses 10:5 and 71:16 too.

Since Zakir Naik has a decent knowledge of Arabic, it is most likely that he was lying and was not ignorant about the meanings. By inserting false meanings for arabic words, he can only fool people who take his words for granted and not bother to check if what he is telling is right. We cannot expect many Muslims to come up with the truth when the lies told by Zakir is helping Islam grow and make the Quran look like a miracle.

However, even those Muslims who acknowledge the true meanings of the words nur and munir have a point to make: Why does the author of the Quran mention moon as simply "a light" and sun as "a lamp (light source)"? They argue that this is because the author knew that the sun is actually the source of the light of the moon. Let us look at the meaning of the word "siraj" that is used to describe sunlight: http://www.arabdict.com/en/english-arabic/سِرَاجًا

The meaning of siraj is "dazzling lamp" or "great lamp". Besides, sunlight is mentioned in the Quran as wahaaj/diya meaning blazing torch/shining glory. If you look at this, it is clear that the author of the Quran is simply describing sunlight as a "greater light" and moonlight as simply "light". This is what anyone in the seventh century knew! That sunlight is far brighter than the moonlight.

In fact, the Greeks like Aristotle knew that moonlight was reflected, about a thousand years before Muhammad was even born. It is something that was understood over time in many countries such as India by observing the phases of the moon. By the middle ages, even Arabs got to know this by the same method. From then on, efforts were always underway to reinterpret the Quran in order to make it compatible with the new discoveries.

Stoning to Death/100 Lashes for Sex Outside Marriage

The punishment in Islam for adultery after marriage is stoning to death. This is beyond doubt, the most barbaric punishment that exists in the 21st century. Not only that most Muslim majority countries have this punishment, an estimate of 70% of all people who identify themselves as Muslims support this punishment even today! This is a very dangerous situation.

While it may not be ethical to commit adultery after marriage when most couples expect each other to not commit it, this is not something which deserves such a cruel punishment. Laws can be made in place so that if the spouse has a problem with his or her partner committing adultery, then a divorce can be granted along with a fine. This is all that is needed. It is a social misconception or dogma that adultery is a big crime - it is not that big. Adultery is sex by mutual consent. No matter how hard it is for people affected by this dogma to understand, the fact is that a husband/wife can still love his/her partner a lot even if he or she has a one-time affair. The matter can easily be sorted out between themselves.

Now, if a child is born, the parents have to take care of this, and they should be held responsible for this. However, this is why we have contraceptives such as condoms and pills to avoid unwanted pregnancy in the first place. And this is why we have sex education. A properly educated person knows very well that he or she has to avoid any unwanted pregnancy even if he or she goes for such an affair.

Here is a video of this barbaric stoning to death in practice, in Afghanistan: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=U96_b7of6qI

No kind human being can support this barbaric punishment, atleast after seeing this video.

Authentic hadiths have narrations upon which this barbaric punishment is based on:

1) Sahih al Bukhari 9:92:432

http://sunnah.com/bukhari/96/61
Narrated Ibn `Umar:
The Jews brought a man and a woman who had committed illegal sexual intercourse, to the Prophet (ﷺ) and the Prophet (ﷺ) ordered them to be stoned to death, and they were stoned to death near the mosque where the biers used to be placed.

2) Sahih al Bukhari 8:82:810

http://sunnah.com/bukhari/86/49
Narrated Jabir:
A man from the tribe of Aslam came to the Prophet (ﷺ) and confessed that he had committed an illegal sexual intercourse. The Prophet (ﷺ) turned his face away from him till the man bore witness against himself four times. The Prophet (ﷺ) said to him, "Are you mad?" He said "No." He said, "Are you married?" He said, "Yes." Then the Prophet (ﷺ) ordered that he be stoned to death, and he was stoned to death at the Musalla. When the stones troubled him, he fled, but he was caught and was stoned till he died. The Prophet (ﷺ) spoke well of him and offered his funeral prayer.

The punishment for adultery before marriage is one hundred lashes in public. This is another barbaric punishment. Sex before marriage between two consenting adults is not wrong at all! It is personal freedom and no one has the right to interfere in such an act. People with proper sex education will be aware that unwanted pregnancies can be avoided by using contraceptives. We know people who become struggling for life even after getting fifty lashes. This inhuman torture cannot be tolerated.

This punishment has a base in the Quran: http://corpus.quran.com/translation.jsp?chapter=24&verse=2

Quran 24:2 - The adulterer and the adulteress, scourge ye each one of them (with) a hundred stripes. And let not pity for the twain withhold you from obedience to Allah, if ye believe in Allah and the Last Day. And let a party of believers witness their punishment.

This cruel punishment is an attack on human rights and freedom to do anything (without hurting others). There is nothing shameful about sex by consent between two unmarried adults and no one has the right to interfere in it.

Quranic claim of every living being having Pairs - Male and Female

The Quran claims that every living being has pairs. What does this mean? As the Quran itself explains, by pairs, it means male and female counterparts.

Quran 51:49 - http://corpus.quran.com/translation.jsp?chapter=51&verse=49

Yusuf Ali: And of every thing We have created pairs: That ye may receive instruction.
Pickthall: And all things We have created by pairs, that haply ye may reflect.

Quran 53:45 - http://corpus.quran.com/translation.jsp?chapter=53&verse=45

Yusuf Ali: That He did create in pairs,- male and female,
Pickthall: And that He createth the two spouses, the male and the female,

First of all let us address the argument that the Quran is not talking only about living beings here. The first problem with that logic is that non living things are clearly not always having pairs. Secondly, the Arabic word used here for pairs is "zawjayni" which means "spouses" as you can see here in the word by word grammar of the Quran: http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=51&verse=49#(51:49:1)

Meaning of zawjayni: http://corpus.quran.com/qurandictionary.jsp?q=zwj#(51:49:5)

The same word is used in verse 53:45 as well. 

So it is clear that the Quran claims that every living being has a male and female counterpart. Bang! This is a clear scientific error. We know that there are organisms which does not have a gender - such as bacteria which reproduces asexually. There is no doubt that the author of the Quran did not know that bacteria even existed. This proves beyond all doubt that the author is not an all-knowing being, but rather a human.

Clear Mathematical Error in the Quran

The Quran has a clear mathematical error in the verses about the law of inheritance:

Quran 4:11 - 4:12 - http://quran.com/4/11-12
 
4:11 - Allah instructs you concerning your children: for the male, what is equal to the share of two females. But if there are [only] daughters, two or more, for them is two thirds of one's estate. And if there is only one, for her is half. And for one's parents, to each one of them is a sixth of his estate if he left children. But if he had no children and the parents [alone] inherit from him, then for his mother is one third. And if he had brothers [or sisters], for his mother is a sixth, after any bequest he [may have] made or debt. Your parents or your children - you know not which of them are nearest to you in benefit. [These shares are] an obligation [imposed] by Allah. Indeed, Allah is ever Knowing and Wise.
 
4:12 - And for you is half of what your wives leave if they have no child. But if they have a child, for you is one fourth of what they leave, after any bequest they [may have] made or debt. And for the wives is one fourth if you leave no child. But if you leave a child, then for them is an eighth of what you leave, after any bequest you [may have] made or debt. And if a man or woman leaves neither ascendants nor descendants but has a brother or a sister, then for each one of them is a sixth. But if they are more than two, they share a third, after any bequest which was made or debt, as long as there is no detriment [caused]. [This is] an ordinance from Allah , and Allah is Knowing and Forbearing.
 
What is clear from these verses is that if a man dies after leaving three daughters, according to Quran:
 
1) The daughters together get 2/3 of inheritance. (16/24)
2) The father gets 1/6. (4/24)
3) The mother gets 1/6. (4/24)
4) His wife gets 1/8. (3/24)
16/24 + 4/24 + 4/24 + 3/24 = 27/24.
 
The big question is: Who taught Allah mathematics?
 
To the Muslim readers: Before you simply comfort yourselves with some explanation you find in a Muslim website, read the verse carefully. And think how is it even possible to have any money leftover after spending all of it for daughters + father + mother (sum = 24/24). How is it mathematically possible to have 1/8th left for the man's wife?
 
The simplest and the most reasonable explanation is that the Quran was the work of a human.